acandrad - 08 August 2008 08:48 AM
I am sorry for not being clear enough. I thought it would not be necessary to explain what a fallacy is. The fallacy, in this case, is a logic error. For example:
“The Holocaust is used as an excuse to inflict suffering to the Palestinian people. Thus it is a myth” is a fallacy because there is no causal relation between the two statements.
Concerning the number of deaths, did you really read what I wrote?
I would argue that there is a definite relationship, though not causal, between the mythologization of the Nazi holocaust and its use as a justification for land-theft and other crimes by Israeli troops and settlers against the Palestinians. You seem unwilling to accept this, but it is well documented, by Finkelstein among others, not least in the chronology of how something called ‘the Holocaust’ first emerged as a unique, special object of reverence and study only in the 1970s. Prior to this point, the record of Nazi crimes against the European Jews were virtually ignored by zionists, and rescued from oblivion only by a handful of dedicated Soviet journalists, leftists scholars and marginalized researchers like Raul Hilberg in the West.
The main point I made earlier still stands:
What you need to do here is provide a direct quotation from Ahmadinejad denying the Nazi holocaust. I am not doubting the possibility, as Ahmadinejad is in my opinion a thorough reactionary; but it is a poor method to start from the expectation that the reader will accept this serious charge as fact on the say-so of politically-invested third parties.